LICENSURE TRIAL QUESTIONS FOR NURSES
QUESTION 1-25
Q1. A client has Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease. The nurse should teach the client that after every meal the client should...
A. Rest in sitting position
B. Take a short walk
C. Lie down at least 30minutes
D. Drink plenty water.
Answers
Q2. A client is admitted to the hospital with benign prostatic hyperplasia, the nurse most relevant assessment would be :
A. Urethral discharge
B. Distension of e lower abdomen
C. Perineal edema
D. Flank pain radiating in e groin
Q3: Halfway through the administration of blood, e female client complains of lumbar pain, after stopping e infusion, the nurse should :
A. Obtain vital signs
B. Notify the blood bank
C. Increase the flow of normal saline
D. Assess e pain further
Q4. Which of e following factors would e nurse suspect as predisposing a client to placenta previa:
A. Abdominal trauma
B. Renal or vascular disease
C. Uterine anomalies
D. Multiple gestation
Q. 5. Which of e following will e nurse identify as presumptive sign of pregnancy?
A. Skin pigmentation changes
B. Positive serum pregnancy test
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. Hegar sign
Q6. The amniotic fluid of a client has a greenish tint. The nurse interprets this to be the result of which if the following :
A. Hydramnio
B. Lanugo
C. Meconium
D. Vernix
Q7. Which hormone is necessary for a positive pregnancy test?
A. HCG
B. Estrogen
C. Placental lactogen
D. Progesterone
Q8. Heartburns and flatulence , common in the second trimester, are most likely the results of:
A. Decreased gastric acidity
B. Elevated estrogen levels
C. Decreased intestinal motility
D. Increased plasma HCG levels
Q9. When assessing the adequacy of sperm for conception to occur, which of e following is the most useful criterion :
A. Sperm maturity
B. Sperm count
C. Semen volume
D. Sperm motility
Q10. Which of e following urinary symptoms does the pregnant woman most frequently experience during the first trimester :
A. Frequency
B. Dysuria
C. Incontinence
D. Burning sensation
Q11. Nurse teaches a client with heart failure to take oral furosemide in the morning. The reason for this is to help...
A. Retard rapid drug absorption
B. Prevention of electrolytes imbalance
C. Excrete excessive fluid accumulated
D. Prevents sleep disturbances in the night
Q12. Nurse Gyima knows that the positive diagnosis for HIV infection is made based on which of the ff :
A history of high risk sexual behaviors
B. Positive ELISA and western blot test
C. Identification of an associated infection
D. Evidence of extreme weight loss and high fever
Q13. Oral iron supplements are prescribed for a 6yr old child with iron deficiency anaemia , the nurse instruct the mother to administer the iron with which best food item :
A. Milk
B. Water
C. Apple juice
D. Orange juice
Q14. A client is admitted to the hospital with S/S of diabetes mellitus . Which findings would the nurse mostly likely to observe. Select all dat apply :
1. Excessive thirst
2. Weight gain
3. Constipation
4. Excessive hunger
5. Urine retention
6. Frequent, high volume micturation
Q15 The nurse ask the patient to identify the date, the time of the day and the location of the clinic. The nurse is assessing the patient's:
A. Mental status
B. Perception
C. Orientation
D. Thought
Q16. The best position for examining the rectum is:
A. Sim's
B. Prone
C. Knee-chest
D. Lithotomy
17. During the first 4 hours after a male circumcision, assessing for which is the most priority :
A. Dehydration
B. Infection
C. Discomfort
D. Haemorrhage
Q18. FHR can be auscultated with a fetoscope as early as:
A. 5 weeks gestation
B. 10 weeks gestation
C. 15 weeks gestation
D. 20 weeks gestation
Q19. What would the nurse identify as the classical sign of PIH?
A. Weight gain per week
B. Edema of the feet and ankles
C. Edema of the hands and face
D. Early morning headache
Q20. Which hormone is responsible for heart burns in pregnancy?
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Testosterone
D. Luteinizing hormone
Q21. Which of e following stages of labour would the nurse assess "crowning"?
A. First Stage
B. Second stage
C. Third stage
D. Fourth stage
E. Fifth stage
Q22. Which of the following indicates presence of a possible hypoglycemic reaction?
A. Tremors
B. Anorexia
C. Hot dry skin
D. Muscle cramps
Q23. A client with acute chest pain is receiving IV morphine sulphate. Which of the following Results are intended effect of morphine?
SELLECT ALL THAT APPLY
1. Reduces myocardial oxygen consumption
2. Promotes reduction in respiratory rate
3. Prevents ventricular remodelling
4. Reduces blood pressure and heart rate
5. Reduces anxiety and fear.
Q24. Amoxicillin trihydrate (Amoxicillin) 300mg PO has been prescribed for a client with an oral infection. The medication is available in a liquid suspension that is available as 250mg/5ml. How many milliliters should the administer ?
Q25. A 10month-old looks for objects that have been removed from his view.
The nurse should instruct the parents that :
A.. Neuromuscular development enables the child to reach out and grasp objects.
B. The child's curiosity has increased.
C. The child understand the permanence of object even though the child cannot see them.
D. The child is now able to transfer objects from hand to hand.
Q1. A client has Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease. The nurse should teach the client that after every meal the client should...
A. Rest in sitting position
B. Take a short walk
C. Lie down at least 30minutes
D. Drink plenty water.
Answers
Q2. A client is admitted to the hospital with benign prostatic hyperplasia, the nurse most relevant assessment would be :
A. Urethral discharge
B. Distension of e lower abdomen
C. Perineal edema
D. Flank pain radiating in e groin
Q3: Halfway through the administration of blood, e female client complains of lumbar pain, after stopping e infusion, the nurse should :
A. Obtain vital signs
B. Notify the blood bank
C. Increase the flow of normal saline
D. Assess e pain further
Q4. Which of e following factors would e nurse suspect as predisposing a client to placenta previa:
A. Abdominal trauma
B. Renal or vascular disease
C. Uterine anomalies
D. Multiple gestation
Q. 5. Which of e following will e nurse identify as presumptive sign of pregnancy?
A. Skin pigmentation changes
B. Positive serum pregnancy test
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. Hegar sign
Q6. The amniotic fluid of a client has a greenish tint. The nurse interprets this to be the result of which if the following :
A. Hydramnio
B. Lanugo
C. Meconium
D. Vernix
Q7. Which hormone is necessary for a positive pregnancy test?
A. HCG
B. Estrogen
C. Placental lactogen
D. Progesterone
Q8. Heartburns and flatulence , common in the second trimester, are most likely the results of:
A. Decreased gastric acidity
B. Elevated estrogen levels
C. Decreased intestinal motility
D. Increased plasma HCG levels
Q9. When assessing the adequacy of sperm for conception to occur, which of e following is the most useful criterion :
A. Sperm maturity
B. Sperm count
C. Semen volume
D. Sperm motility
Q10. Which of e following urinary symptoms does the pregnant woman most frequently experience during the first trimester :
A. Frequency
B. Dysuria
C. Incontinence
D. Burning sensation
Q11. Nurse teaches a client with heart failure to take oral furosemide in the morning. The reason for this is to help...
A. Retard rapid drug absorption
B. Prevention of electrolytes imbalance
C. Excrete excessive fluid accumulated
D. Prevents sleep disturbances in the night
Q12. Nurse Gyima knows that the positive diagnosis for HIV infection is made based on which of the ff :
A history of high risk sexual behaviors
B. Positive ELISA and western blot test
C. Identification of an associated infection
D. Evidence of extreme weight loss and high fever
Q13. Oral iron supplements are prescribed for a 6yr old child with iron deficiency anaemia , the nurse instruct the mother to administer the iron with which best food item :
A. Milk
B. Water
C. Apple juice
D. Orange juice
Q14. A client is admitted to the hospital with S/S of diabetes mellitus . Which findings would the nurse mostly likely to observe. Select all dat apply :
1. Excessive thirst
2. Weight gain
3. Constipation
4. Excessive hunger
5. Urine retention
6. Frequent, high volume micturation
Q15 The nurse ask the patient to identify the date, the time of the day and the location of the clinic. The nurse is assessing the patient's:
A. Mental status
B. Perception
C. Orientation
D. Thought
Q16. The best position for examining the rectum is:
A. Sim's
B. Prone
C. Knee-chest
D. Lithotomy
17. During the first 4 hours after a male circumcision, assessing for which is the most priority :
A. Dehydration
B. Infection
C. Discomfort
D. Haemorrhage
Q18. FHR can be auscultated with a fetoscope as early as:
A. 5 weeks gestation
B. 10 weeks gestation
C. 15 weeks gestation
D. 20 weeks gestation
Q19. What would the nurse identify as the classical sign of PIH?
A. Weight gain per week
B. Edema of the feet and ankles
C. Edema of the hands and face
D. Early morning headache
Q20. Which hormone is responsible for heart burns in pregnancy?
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Testosterone
D. Luteinizing hormone
Q21. Which of e following stages of labour would the nurse assess "crowning"?
A. First Stage
B. Second stage
C. Third stage
D. Fourth stage
E. Fifth stage
Q22. Which of the following indicates presence of a possible hypoglycemic reaction?
A. Tremors
B. Anorexia
C. Hot dry skin
D. Muscle cramps
Q23. A client with acute chest pain is receiving IV morphine sulphate. Which of the following Results are intended effect of morphine?
SELLECT ALL THAT APPLY
1. Reduces myocardial oxygen consumption
2. Promotes reduction in respiratory rate
3. Prevents ventricular remodelling
4. Reduces blood pressure and heart rate
5. Reduces anxiety and fear.
Q24. Amoxicillin trihydrate (Amoxicillin) 300mg PO has been prescribed for a client with an oral infection. The medication is available in a liquid suspension that is available as 250mg/5ml. How many milliliters should the administer ?
Q25. A 10month-old looks for objects that have been removed from his view.
The nurse should instruct the parents that :
A.. Neuromuscular development enables the child to reach out and grasp objects.
B. The child's curiosity has increased.
C. The child understand the permanence of object even though the child cannot see them.
D. The child is now able to transfer objects from hand to hand.
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